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    dquest24's Avatar
    dquest24 Posts: 1, Reputation: 1
    New Member
     
    #1

    Jul 9, 2010, 08:37 AM
    Adding wife to deed.
    I want to know how I can be added to the deed to our home. My husband bought our home
    With his business partner five years ago. He was going to pay for our home outright once
    He sold his first home in another state and take his partner's name off the deed and put mine on. He did not do that and I want to know can my name be added (as his wife) even though
    The house is still in my husband and his partner's name?

    Thank you for any help you can provide.
    smoothy's Avatar
    smoothy Posts: 25,490, Reputation: 2853
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    #2

    Jul 9, 2010, 08:55 AM

    Without his business partners approval and signature as legal half owner. That's not going to happen. Because you can't simply seize part of his assets without his approval. And technically as long as his name is on it adding a third name dillutes the ownership from 50% each to 33.33% with no compensation.
    ScottGem's Avatar
    ScottGem Posts: 64,966, Reputation: 6056
    Computer Expert and Renaissance Man
     
    #3

    Jul 9, 2010, 09:32 AM

    The partner would have to agree to sell his share of the property to you and your husband as joint tenants.
    AK lawyer's Avatar
    AK lawyer Posts: 12,592, Reputation: 977
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    #4

    Jul 9, 2010, 05:34 PM
    One issue that I have never seen discussed is whether real estate can be transferred in anything but equal shares. For example,
    "A & B, grantors, grant the following shares in the described real property: to A, grantee 1/2 interest, to B, grantee, 1/4 interest, & to C, grantee, 1/4 interest."

    I see no reason why it wouldn't work.
    LisaB4657's Avatar
    LisaB4657 Posts: 3,662, Reputation: 534
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    #5

    Jul 9, 2010, 05:35 PM
    Quote Originally Posted by AK lawyer View Post
    One issue that I have never seen discussed is whether real estate can be transferred in anything but equal shares. For example,
    "A & B, grantors, grant the following shares in the described real property: to A, grantee 1/2 interest, to B, grantee, 1/4 interest, & to C, grantee, 1/4 interest."

    I see no reason why it wouldn't work.
    Sure it can. I've done it many times.

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