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    razorwyre's Avatar
    razorwyre Posts: 4, Reputation: 1
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    #1

    Apr 9, 2012, 10:23 AM
    When a property in California is owned jointly, 50/50 by two parties, is it true that
    When a property in California is owned jointly, 50/50 by two parties, is it true that party "A" can force party "B" to sell it, even if party "B" doesn't want to? Thanks in advance... Chris
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    AK lawyer Posts: 12,592, Reputation: 977
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    #2

    Apr 9, 2012, 10:47 AM
    Yes. This is true just about everywhere in the United States (and the British Commonwealth, as far as I know.).

    Party A would sue Party B for a "partition". If the property can't be conveniently and fairly divided, it would be sold and A & B would get their respective portions of the proceeds (less court costs, cost of sale, etc.)
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    razorwyre Posts: 4, Reputation: 1
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    Apr 9, 2012, 11:23 AM
    How long does that process usually take in court, suing a party for a "partition"? Thanks again~! CHRIS
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    AK lawyer Posts: 12,592, Reputation: 977
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    Apr 9, 2012, 01:00 PM
    Quote Originally Posted by razorwyre View Post
    How long does that process usually take in court, suing a party for a "partition"? Thanks again~! CHRIS
    Several months at a minimum. It would depend on how busy the courts are where you are. It can get complicated, and that would have course draw it out.
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