When a property in California is owned jointly, 50/50 by two parties, is it true that party "A" can force party "B" to sell it, even if party "B" doesn't want to? Thanks in advance... Chris

Yes. This is true just about everywhere in the United States (and the British Commonwealth, as far as I know.).

Party A would sue Party B for a "partition". If the property can't be conveniently and fairly divided, it would be sold and A & B would get their respective portions of the proceeds (less court costs, cost of sale, etc.)

How long does that process usually take in court, suing a party for a "partition"? Thanks again~! CHRIS

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Originally Posted by razorwyre

How long does that process usually take in court, suing a party for a "partition"? Thanks again~! CHRIS

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Several months at a minimum. It would depend on how busy the courts are where you are. It can get complicated, and that would have course draw it out.