When a property in California is owned jointly, 50/50 by two parties, is it true that party "A" can force party "B" to sell it, even if party "B" doesn't want to? Thanks in advance... Chris
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When a property in California is owned jointly, 50/50 by two parties, is it true that party "A" can force party "B" to sell it, even if party "B" doesn't want to? Thanks in advance... Chris
Yes. This is true just about everywhere in the United States (and the British Commonwealth, as far as I know.).
Party A would sue Party B for a "partition". If the property can't be conveniently and fairly divided, it would be sold and A & B would get their respective portions of the proceeds (less court costs, cost of sale, etc.)
How long does that process usually take in court, suing a party for a "partition"? Thanks again~! CHRIS
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