
Originally Posted by
shodon
JudyKayTee
Did I mention I live in California? Apparently there is a law that says that if you own a property, and someone is paying you rent, you are LEGALLY required to pay the mortgage on that property if there is a lien holder. Check it out.
No one bought out the balance of my lease. She had a buyer, who intended on living in the home, and the process was moving forward. I gave 30 days notice and moved out before I was forced out.
If you don't know the California laws, please don't bother to respond.
I am reading this: ""Rent skimming" means using revenue received from the rental of a parcel of residential real property
at any time during
the first year period after acquiring that property without first
Applying the revenue or an equivalent amount to the payments due on
All mortgages and deeds of trust encumbering that property."
I saw no indication that this was within the first year of your landlord's ownership of the property.
What are the grounds for your proposed lawsuit? You are not a party to the rent skimming. You moved out voluntarily.
And please don't even attempt to dictate who will answer your questions and in what manner. If you knew the law, why did you ask the question (and, by the way, I still don't believe the law as written pertains to you.) Of course, you could always retain an Attorney and pay for an opinion.
And, AK, thanks for the good catch.