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    countrygirl0919's Avatar
    countrygirl0919 Posts: 1, Reputation: 1
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    #1

    Nov 1, 2009, 02:59 PM
    Can you be violated for this?
    If you are on probation and have been paying fines but can't pay what they want you to pay can they violate you?
    twinkiedooter's Avatar
    twinkiedooter Posts: 12,172, Reputation: 1054
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    #2

    Nov 1, 2009, 06:03 PM

    Yes, they can violate you for not paying your fine or a restitution.
    Fr_Chuck's Avatar
    Fr_Chuck Posts: 81,301, Reputation: 7692
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    #3

    Nov 1, 2009, 06:06 PM

    Yes they can, you need to talk with your PO as to why you can't and prove to them that it is of no fault of your own. That you are working or trying to find work, that you did not get fired from your last job for something you did, and that you are working on a proper budget to try and pay them.

    But it will be up to the judge as to what they will do
    excon's Avatar
    excon Posts: 21,482, Reputation: 2992
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    #4

    Nov 2, 2009, 08:15 AM

    Hello:

    Didn't a newbie come up with a law about restitution a short time ago?? Didn't it say that you can't be jailed for not paying it, IF you did everything in your capacity to actually pay it??

    I think so, and I'll bet it applies to fines too. Why wouldn't it? After all, we DON'T have a debtors prison anymore.

    I guess I'll have to do some research...

    excon
    excon's Avatar
    excon Posts: 21,482, Reputation: 2992
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    #5

    Nov 2, 2009, 10:50 AM

    Hello again, this:

    Thanks for the greenie. I hope I earned it, but I couldn't find the post where the law was quoted... I COULD have imagined it, I guess...

    excon
    twinkiedooter's Avatar
    twinkiedooter Posts: 12,172, Reputation: 1054
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    #6

    Nov 2, 2009, 11:17 AM

    Exie - the OP said "fines" not "restitution". Please reread the post.
    excon's Avatar
    excon Posts: 21,482, Reputation: 2992
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    #7

    Nov 2, 2009, 12:28 PM

    Hello again, twink:

    I see the distinction... But in terms of the law the newbie cited, I don't see a difference. They're BOTH debts imposed as a result of a criminal conviction.

    If one is excused because it can't be paid, why not the other?

    I know they serve different purposes, but from the perspective of the debtor, they're the same thing with different names. In terms of the law, I suggest it makes NO difference, or at least it SHOULDN'T.

    I WOULD like to see some law here. Where's Judy? Or maybe you can find the post. If I had the name of the law he cited, I could, hopefully, find out some stuff.

    excon
    stevetcg's Avatar
    stevetcg Posts: 3,693, Reputation: 353
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    #8

    Nov 2, 2009, 12:58 PM

    Don't most states offer community work service in lieu of payments when money is unavailable?
    excon's Avatar
    excon Posts: 21,482, Reputation: 2992
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    #9

    Nov 2, 2009, 01:28 PM

    Hello again, Steve:

    Well, that would solve everything. However, I don't know of ANY that does that.

    excon
    stevetcg's Avatar
    stevetcg Posts: 3,693, Reputation: 353
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    #10

    Nov 2, 2009, 01:47 PM
    Quote Originally Posted by excon View Post
    Hello again, Steve:

    Well, that would solve everything. However, I don't know of ANY that does that.

    excon
    MA did. I was given the option of working at minimum wage cleaning streets in order to pay my fines and probationary fees.
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