Ask Experts Questions for FREE Help !
Ask
    victa_p's Avatar
    victa_p Posts: 1, Reputation: 1
    New Member
     
    #1

    Sep 19, 2011, 10:29 PM
    Defaulting on land contract
    Can the buyer be sued for defaulting on the Land Contract agreement? Or do they simply lose their down payment and any equity they may have gained in the home?
    twinkiedooter's Avatar
    twinkiedooter Posts: 12,172, Reputation: 1054
    Uber Member
     
    #2

    Sep 20, 2011, 08:42 AM
    Quote Originally Posted by victa_p View Post
    Can the buyer be sued for defaulting on the Land Contract agreement? Or do they simply lose their down payment and any equity they may have gained in the home?
    The buyer loses his downpayment and any and all equity he may have built up during the time they were in the home. There is no way legally to get this money back. It would be the same if you got a regular mortgage - no return of downpayment or any payments made on the home.

    I think you mean can the "seller" be sued... by the "buyer"...
    ScottGem's Avatar
    ScottGem Posts: 64,966, Reputation: 6056
    Computer Expert and Renaissance Man
     
    #3

    Sep 20, 2011, 09:37 AM
    First, its not a good idea to piggyback your question on someone else's. This can cause confusion so I've moved your post to its own thread.

    This is usually spelled out in the contract. There is generally a clause that details what happens in case of default by the buyer. Usually this means the contract reverts to a rental lease and all money paid is forfeited. Usually this will preclude a suit, since the owner/seller will have been compensated for the default.

    Of course, every contract can be different so you have to read what is in the contract. If there are no provisions for default, then local contract law will apply.

    By the way, in a land sales contract, a buyer doesn't gain equity. Equity in real estate is the different between the value of the property and what is owed against it. Since a land sales contract is not a mortgage and does not constitute a lien on the property the buyer actually has no equity interest until the contract is satisfied and ownership transferred.
    Fr_Chuck's Avatar
    Fr_Chuck Posts: 81,301, Reputation: 7692
    Expert
     
    #4

    Sep 20, 2011, 10:58 AM
    In all of the contracts I do, the buyer merely loses everything they paid in, and the contract converts to a rental, If they owe any unpaid rents for the time from default to the time they move out, I will sue for that.

    But the contract should spell out exactly what is allowed.

Not your question? Ask your question View similar questions

 

Question Tools Search this Question
Search this Question:

Advanced Search

Add your answer here.


Check out some similar questions!

What happens when the owner of a land contract dies before the contract is up [ 1 Answers ]

The person who owns the land contract dies and there is no will, what happens to the contract?

Land contract [ 7 Answers ]

We have in our land contract that new windows would be completed by nov. 1, 2008 and new siding done by July 1, 2009. Now it is June 5, 2009 and only half of windows are done and the siding will not be done on time either through no fault of ours. Can we get our deposit and principle back since...

How to get her out on a land contract [ 3 Answers ]

Is there any way to get a person out on land contract quick? She is constantly late on rent money, she still has not paid for this month, she changes her number all the time so we are unable to contact her, she just is horrible. We need her out.

Defaulting a contract for deed [ 2 Answers ]

My husband and I purchased a home contract for deed 21 months ago. We knew the people selling it and let that cloud our judgement! We knew we were paying a premium for the home but only after talking to the neighbors did we consult a realtor and realize it was about 40,000. The purchase price was...

Contract for deed- defaulting [ 3 Answers ]

This is what my Agreement for Deed states: If any installment payment from buyers becomes more than 30 days past due,or if buyers fail within 30 days from date of acceleration is mailed or personally served, to make payment of all amounts due as so accelerated. Seller may then be hereby authorized...


View more questions Search