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New Member
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Jan 26, 2010, 02:08 PM
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removing a judgement lien on property
my brother-in-law is on disability, cannot work, has a home mortgage and tried to sell it to me because he cannot afford his payments. I was going to let him stay in the house. The trust company informed him he has a judgement lien on the house from a credit card company. The lien plus the mortgage balance is more than the homes value. My Question: How to remove the judgement lien to be able to sell the home?
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Expert
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Jan 26, 2010, 02:29 PM
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The way to remove a judgment lien is to pay off the judgment.
How much equity is there, not including the judgment lien (the value of the home less the payoff on the mortgage)?
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New Member
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Jan 26, 2010, 02:46 PM
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Equity approx. 20K, Judgement filed 2008 @ 10.8K now @ 21.8K
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Expert
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Jan 26, 2010, 03:12 PM
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Only thing I can suggest is try to work a deal with the judgment creditor. Point out that if the mortgage is foreclosed they will never get anything. Offer them $1,000 to release their lien.
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Ultra Member
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Jan 26, 2010, 03:37 PM
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 Originally Posted by AK lawyer
Only thing I can suggest is try to work a deal with the judgment creditor. Point out that if the mortgage is foreclosed they will never get anything. Offer them $1,000 to release their lien.
... are you kidding?
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Uber Member
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Jan 27, 2010, 08:36 AM
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 Originally Posted by AK lawyer
Only thing I can suggest is try to work a deal with the judgment creditor. Point out that if the mortgage is foreclosed they will never get anything. Offer them $1,000 to release their lien.
Okay, I'll be the one to ask - why would the judgment creditor get nothing if the house is foreclosed?
Why can't the creditor move against other assets?
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Expert
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Jan 27, 2010, 09:59 AM
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 Originally Posted by JudyKayTee
Okay, I'll be the one to ask - why would the judgment creditor get nothing if the house is foreclosed?
The first mortgave is senior to the judgment lien. The holder of the first mortgage will take it for the value of that mortgage. Any equity will be extinguished by the foreclosure.
 Originally Posted by JudyKayTee
Why can't the creditor move against other assets?
It's just an educated guess, but I doubt there are any non-exempt assets:
 Originally Posted by stanfloorman
my brother-in-law is on disability, cannot work, ...
Another possible solution would be to buy the mortgage and foreclose it. Either that, or buy the property after the mortgagee has foreclosed.
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Ultra Member
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Jan 27, 2010, 10:52 AM
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 Originally Posted by AK lawyer
The first mortgave is senior to the judgment lien. The holder of the first mortgage will take it for the value of that mortgage. Any equity will be extinguished by the foreclosure.
It's just an educated guess, but I doubt there are any non-exempt assets:
Another possible solution would be to buy the mortgage and foreclose it. Either that, or buy the property after the mortgagee has foreclosed.
As seem to be a recurring theme in your posts...
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New Member
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Jan 27, 2010, 10:53 AM
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If I buy the mortgage and foreclose it, doesn't the judgement pass to to buyer?
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New Member
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Jan 27, 2010, 10:56 AM
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I mean could I then get title to the property without the judgement lien being attached.
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Ultra Member
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Jan 27, 2010, 11:04 AM
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 Originally Posted by stanfloorman
If I buy the mortgage and foreclose it, doesn't the judgement pass to to buyer?
That's not how it works. You don't foreclose on the house; the mortgage holder forecloses on the house.
You can always get a new mortgage, pay off the existing mortgage and then buy the house - but you'll need to pay off the lien in order to transfer the title into your name.
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Expert
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Jan 27, 2010, 11:15 AM
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 Originally Posted by stanfloorman
If I buy the mortgage and foreclose it, doesn't the judgement pass to to buyer?
Normally, no. Check with a local attorney first, of course.
 Originally Posted by stanfloorman
I mean could I then get title to the property without the judgement lien being attached.
That's what I'm suggesting.
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Uber Member
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Jan 27, 2010, 12:56 PM
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 Originally Posted by AK lawyer
The first mortgave is senior to the judgment lien. The holder of the first mortgage will take it for the value of that mortgage. Any equity will be extinguished by the foreclosure.
It's just an educated guess, but I doubt there are any non-exempt assets:
Another possible solution would be to buy the mortgage and foreclose it. Either that, or buy the property after the mortgagee has foreclosed.
As I suggested yesterday the site works a lot better if "we" stick to the question as asked instead of giving "what if" answers.
You said that the lien holder would get nothing if the property foreclosed. That is not true. There are other avenues, including wages which are not always exempt.
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New Member
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Jan 29, 2010, 09:39 AM
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I am going to contact an attorney in Georgia where the property is located to explore my options as I want to avoid the judgemenr attachment. Thank all of you for your input.
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Computer Expert and Renaissance Man
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Jan 29, 2010, 10:06 AM
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 Originally Posted by stanfloorman
I am going to contact an attorney in Georgia where the property is located to explore my options as i want to avoid the judgemenr attachment. Thank all of you for your input.
You can't avoid the lien. Assuming it was legally placed, then it has to be satisfied before a transfer of ownership can take place. You can try to negotiate a settlement.
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