
Originally Posted by
JudyKayTee
So you see no liability on the part of the company or employee?
If the client was damaged by the conduct of the employee, and if the company authorized or assented to, or profited by, the conduct of the employee, there very well could be liability. But I have yet to see that such factors exist. Writing a motion that is denied by a court of law is not,
ipso facto, damage.
I'm still waiting to see what kind of a firm the company is, but clearly if the company expected to be paid for this motion, it has engaged in the unauthorized practice of law (unless it is a law firm), which may weigh against it, should it come to that.