
Originally Posted by
Wondergirl
You're the game player, putting me on the defensive. You never responded to that one very important question I asked.
I responded to them all, but even so, even if you thought that I didn't, that is no reason to refuse to answer any and all questions. If you want to adopt that attitude, clearly there is no value in discussion since you think that I have an obligation to do whatever you ask, but you do not have a similar obligation. Just a reminder - I am NOT your husband - I do not obey what you say because you say it!
The Gospel is woven throughout the OT, but 99.9% of the Jews did not, and still do not, understand its message.
Irrelevant. The same is true of the gospel in the NT.
Sneaky, Tom. The reference to the Holy Scriptures in that verse is to the OT. There was no NT written at the time.
heh heh, last time you tried to avoid acknowledging my point by denying that you had said that this from referring to the OT. And it is not sneaky - the gospel IS in the OT and does contain enough for us to understand the gospel of salvation through Jesus.
Not until Paul came along to orally explain did the Bereans (Jews) understand exactly what those OT passages meant.
I already proved that wrong by showing you what scripture says about the NT.
Let's see which questions you still have not answered:
1) Who is your interpreter? How do YOU interpret scripture? Why don't you share that with us?
2) Do you think that Paul erred in commending the men of Berea for taking the initiative to read what scripture said to test whether Paul's teachings were sound?
3) Were they wrong to simply read it?
4) If Paul was an authority, why did they not simply accept his oral teaching without testing by scripture?
5) Why did they not seek his interpretation as being the standard?