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    pop000's Avatar
    pop000 Posts: 352, Reputation: 6
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    #1

    Jan 17, 2011, 05:55 AM
    Prove the Vertical asymptotic
    I have an Function (in the picture) and I need to Prove if X=0 can be a Vertical asymptotic
    so I tried to use in L'Hôpital's rule but is not Possible Because I not get 0/0 or -+Infinity/+-Infinity.

    so how can I prove it?

    and more little thing tell me if I correct that X=1 is can't be an Vertical asymptotic

    thanks for help :)
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    jcaron2's Avatar
    jcaron2 Posts: 986, Reputation: 204
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    #2

    Jan 17, 2011, 07:12 AM
    If you rewrite the cot function as cos/sin, you'll see that the denominator really DOES go to zero.
    pop000's Avatar
    pop000 Posts: 352, Reputation: 6
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    #3

    Jan 17, 2011, 07:56 AM
    Comment on jcaron2's post
    so there is not Vertical asymptotic for x=0 what about x=1 I calculated it and I found that there is no Vertical asymptotic when x=1 is correct?
    thank you
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    jcaron2 Posts: 986, Reputation: 204
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    #4

    Jan 17, 2011, 08:46 AM
    Comment on jcaron2's post
    Yes, correct in both cases. Good job! But there ARE asymptotes at x= +/- 2, +/- 4, +/- 6,.
    pop000's Avatar
    pop000 Posts: 352, Reputation: 6
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    #5

    Jan 17, 2011, 10:31 AM
    Comment on jcaron2's post
    hi. I still dosen't Success to calculated for x=0 can you Please show me any way to prove that there is no Vertical asymptotic for x=1 ?

    really thank you.
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    pop000 Posts: 352, Reputation: 6
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    #6

    Jan 17, 2011, 10:41 AM
    Comment on jcaron2's post
    oh sorry I mean if you can show me any way to prove that there is no Vertical asymptotic for x=o.

    thanks.
    ebaines's Avatar
    ebaines Posts: 12,131, Reputation: 1307
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    #7

    Jan 17, 2011, 10:52 AM

    pop000: Use l'Hospital's rule. The derivative of the numerator for x=0 is 1, and the derivative of the denominator for x = 0 is -pi/2. So the limit as x goes to 0 is -2/pi.
    Unknown008's Avatar
    Unknown008 Posts: 8,076, Reputation: 723
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    #8

    Jan 17, 2011, 11:07 AM

    That image is small >.<



    A strange graph that is... (http://www.wolframalpha.com/input/?i=y+%3D+\frac{x+cot+(\frac{\pi+x}{2})}{x^3+-+1})

    Applying L'Hopital's rule (if I do that right... )



    But that graph is another strange one :eek:
    ebaines's Avatar
    ebaines Posts: 12,131, Reputation: 1307
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    #9

    Jan 17, 2011, 11:22 AM

    Here's how I applied l'hospital:

    Unknown008's Avatar
    Unknown008 Posts: 8,076, Reputation: 723
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    #10

    Jan 17, 2011, 11:28 AM

    Ah, I kept the cot in the numerator and gave me -1/sin^2(pi x/2)

    It seems strange to me though of how a different result is obtained beginning with the same function but applying l'Hopital's rule a 'different' way...
    ebaines's Avatar
    ebaines Posts: 12,131, Reputation: 1307
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    #11

    Jan 17, 2011, 12:07 PM

    Applying l'Hospital to the equation in its original form doesn't work too well:



    You can apply l'Hospital again, but it gets really messy and I gave up on it.
    Unknown008's Avatar
    Unknown008 Posts: 8,076, Reputation: 723
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    #12

    Jan 17, 2011, 12:09 PM

    Oops, seems I didn't do it well :o

    Thanks!
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    pop000 Posts: 352, Reputation: 6
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    #13

    Jan 17, 2011, 12:22 PM
    Comment on Unknown008's post
    Yes I also saw this graph and I am not see there any Vertical asymptotic. :)
    pop000's Avatar
    pop000 Posts: 352, Reputation: 6
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    #14

    Jan 17, 2011, 12:40 PM
    Comment on ebaines's post
    Nice, thank.

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