If f'(4) > f'(3) does that mean that f(4)>f(3) ?

Ayansar · Dec 5, 2010, 05:51 AM

Unknown008 · Dec 5, 2010, 06:49 AM

No. You can take for example the curve $y = -x^2$

At -1, the gradient (ie f'(-1)) is 2 and at 0, the gradient is 0.

This means that $f'(-1) > f'(0)$

But you know that f(-1) = -1 and f(0) = 0

So, $f(-1) \cancel{>} f(0)$

Ayansar · Dec 5, 2010, 07:07 AM

well then, how shall we determine whether the statement is true or not in page 3, q4, a), 1. in the following link:
http://elearning.ppu.edu/mod/resource/view.php?id=14978

Unknown008 · Dec 5, 2010, 07:22 AM

I'm afraid you'll have to post the question. I have to register to be able to see the question and that's not something I like to do on any site I don't know much about.

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