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-   -   If f'(4) > f'(3) does that mean that f(4)>f(3) ? (https://www.askmehelpdesk.com/showthread.php?t=531791)

  • Dec 5, 2010, 05:51 AM
    Ayansar
    If f'(4) > f'(3) does that mean that f(4)>f(3) ?
  • Dec 5, 2010, 06:49 AM
    Unknown008

    No. You can take for example the curve

    At -1, the gradient (ie f'(-1)) is 2 and at 0, the gradient is 0.

    This means that

    But you know that f(-1) = -1 and f(0) = 0

    So,
  • Dec 5, 2010, 07:07 AM
    Ayansar
    Comment on Unknown008's post
    well then, how shall we determine whether the statement is true or not in page 3, q4, a), 1. in the following link:
    http://elearning.ppu.edu/mod/resource/view.php?id=14978
  • Dec 5, 2010, 07:22 AM
    Unknown008

    I'm afraid you'll have to post the question. I have to register to be able to see the question and that's not something I like to do on any site I don't know much about.

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