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    bell1881mb's Avatar
    bell1881mb Posts: 1, Reputation: 1
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    #1

    May 6, 2008, 10:48 AM
    Judicial System
    Who has the power to void laws considered unconstitutional?

    The President can fill a vacancy on the Court using his power of appointment provided the ? Approve his choice.:confused:
    George_1950's Avatar
    George_1950 Posts: 3,099, Reputation: 236
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    #2

    May 6, 2008, 11:00 AM
    Welcome to AMHD. You can do this!
    cleanfun's Avatar
    cleanfun Posts: 26, Reputation: 10
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    #3

    May 6, 2008, 11:21 AM
    I'm assuming that you are referring to the United States Constitution.

    In which case;

    1.) The Supreme Court of the United States has the power to veto laws which were passed by the process of both houses agreeing not to veto the proposed law, and finally, the President agreeing not to veto it.

    2.)... provided that the Senate approves his choice.

    The Law is not Math. If it were, it would read 2+2=4 and sometimes 5. Unless you need it to be 3 then that's okay too. After all, it's only a hair away from 4. And if you agree to help me make it 3 this time, I'll agree to help you make it 6 when your need arises. After about 232 years of that, 2+2= Anything & Everything.
    George_1950's Avatar
    George_1950 Posts: 3,099, Reputation: 236
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    #4

    May 6, 2008, 11:31 AM
    Quote Originally Posted by cleanfun
    The Law is not Math. If it were, it would read 2+2=4 and sometimes 5. Unless you need it to be 3 then that's okay too.
    Just curious: you have one or two examples of this?
    cleanfun's Avatar
    cleanfun Posts: 26, Reputation: 10
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    #5

    May 6, 2008, 12:34 PM
    Quote Originally Posted by George_1950
    Just curious: you have one or two examples of this?
    There are literally thousands of complex examples that could fill volumes, but here's a couple just off the top of my head.

    Example #1:

    In California, It's against the law to use deadly force unless you can PROVE they intended on killing you. That's a very tough case to prove unless you're dead, and then it's even more difficult. That alone is a Paradox.

    However, in Texas, you can kill someone who enters your property uninvited, according to the Castle Law/Doctrine.

    In most states, any convicted criminal activity revokes you're right to bare arms, at least for a time. That alone is unconstitutional. I don't recall the Second Amendment stating the right to bare arms, unless or only if...

    In the meantime, certain groups such as National Commission for Economic Conversion & Disarmament are working day & night to ban guns in the United States. And surprisingly they are succeeding. http://www.pinkpistols.org/antigun.html How is that Constitutional?

    So what happens to all of those gun laws, including the Second Amendment, once these individuals finally succeed entirely in their mission?

    Example #2:

    The marijuana issue. It's against Federal law to possess it. Unless of course you're in California where Federal authority isn't recognized and you can simply go to any number of doctors who will write you a prescription for $150-$250. Which you take to a local cannabis club where you can purchase dozens of different grades of marijuana, which just so happen to be TAXED by the State. However, according to California law, that marijuana isn't allowed to be sold but is to be GIVEN away freely. So how can they tax it?

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