I have a question in your above example. I think I have it all down now thanks to you :) <3

Originally Posted by
goldenbutterfly
If, let's say, recovery of previously written off accounts is 900, the ending balance would be a debit balance of 100. Adjustment would be: (1000-200+900)=-100 ending balance of allowance; required balance of 1200 less debit balance of (-100)=1,300
If the
recovery of previously written off accounts is 900 wouldn't that be a cr of 900 to allowances of doubtful accounts? Wouldn't it be adjusted like this? (1000+900-200)=cr. 1700, so then after that you need to adjust it like this?
current bal. for allowances = cr 1700
adjustment for the required ending balance = cr. 500 to bad debts expense and dr. 500 to allowances?

Originally Posted by
goldenbutterfly
Beginning balance of Allowance 1000
Accounts Written Off (200)
Recovery of previously written off accounts 300
Ending balance of Allowance 1,100
which Begging balance = cr. 1000
accounts wrriten off = dr. 200
recovery of written off = cr. 300
ending balance = cr. 1,100
that's why I came to the earlier conclusion and it threw me off a little bit.
One last question for you. ( I know your like when will this kid understand lol )
The book I'm reading from uses the percentage of net credit sales method. From your example I got that you add whatever % you estimated off net sales. You cr. To the ending balance of Allowances for DA and dr. the doubtful accounts expense with your % of net sales? If I have been correct so far I understand it all now. Again, thank you so much goldenbutterfly, that was the only problem I have had so far with what I have learned.
*EDIT* I found one more problem when I got more indepth with this. In my book it says "The balance of Allowance for Doubtful Accounts is reduced throughout the year as customer accounts are written off. notice that Allowance for Doubtful aAccounts already has a credit balance of $100 in the Trail Balance section of the worksheet. When the estimate of uncollectible accounts expense is based on sales, any remaining balance from previous periods is not considered when recording the adjustment.". I understand this but what I don't understand is what it did next.
In the book it said that the estimated % of net credit sales uncollectible equals to $750; which means cr. 750 to allowances of doubtful accounts and dr. 750 to bad debt expense. Right after this it shows in the worksheet that the balance of allowances for doubtful accounts is cr. 850 which contradicted itself because the previous period bal. of allowances was 100 adding to the new one from % of net sales to equal the cr. 850 which is stated that the pervioud balance is not considered and/or recorded with the new one (enless I have mistaken something). But if this is the case (where you discard the previous balance of allowances) where does that $100 end up? Isn't all your funds suppose to be accounted for and know where they go? Because that was $100 in the allowances fund that was left over from last period and doesn't just vanish, does it end up as revenue?
Lol I can see I work best with the direct write-off method xD