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    Wikkibahi's Avatar
    Wikkibahi Posts: 42, Reputation: 1
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    #1

    Nov 20, 2011, 12:59 AM
    Question about Uniqueness of Limit..
    If f(x)-->L as x-->a and f(x)-->M as x-->a, then prove that L=M for 'f' be a function from R to R.
    Please tell me its Solution with step by step...!
    Thanks a lot for this.
    Aurora2000's Avatar
    Aurora2000 Posts: 111, Reputation: 16
    Junior Member
     
    #2

    Nov 20, 2011, 04:51 AM
    Use the definition of limit:
    "
    if and only if for any [math]\epsilon>0 [math] there exists [math] \delta>0[\math] such that implies "

    Then if , you can write . So you have from hypothesis
    "
    which translates to

    for any [math]\epsilon>0 [math] there exists [math] \delta>0[\math] such that implies "

    and

    for any [math]\epsilon>0 [math] there exists [math] \delta'>0[\math] such that implies ".

    Then choose very small, say : in this case you should have the corresponding ; put , and choose an arbitrary such that : you have now

    and

    contradiction.

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