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anushree121 · Nov 8, 2011, 09:21 AM

The chance of success in each trial is p.If p(k) is the probability that there are even number of successes in k trials prove that p(k)= p {p(k-1)}(1-2p)

ebaines · Nov 8, 2011, 09:53 AM

Are you sure you have this right? From what you wrote if p > 0.5 then your value for p(k) becomes negative, which would be incorrect.

anushree121 · Nov 8, 2011, 10:53 PM

Thanks EBAINES for answering... this question is given to me as an assignment but I couldn't find a solution... I'm too confused

ebaines · Nov 9, 2011, 07:19 AM

Is this the formula you were given:

p(k) = p(k-1) p (1-2p)?

It's pretty easy to show that this is incorrect. If p = 1/2 (such as in flipping a coin and getting heads), it says the odds of getting an even number of heads in, say, 2 flips of the coin is 0. Whoever gave you this formula was wrong.

anushree121 · Nov 9, 2011, 08:37 AM

oh! sorry. Its p(k)= p + {p(k-1)}(1-2p)... I missed the '+' sign in my question