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What fallacy does this argument commit?
No one has shown that the Duke was not Jack the Ripper. And we do know that Jack must have been a member of the peerage. So we should assume that Jack was the Duke and the royal family acted to suppress any evidence of that fact.
Either it is a straw man fallacy or an argument from ignorance. Any help? |
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Straw man: an argument based on misrepresentation of an opponent's position.
Argument from ignorance: assuming that a claim is true (or false) because it has not been proven false (true) or cannot be proven false (true). Does that help? I've decided which it is. Have you? |
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