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Freida67 · Feb 2, 2007, 01:38 AM

My husband inherited a house a year before we married. Since then we have added me onto the title and remortgaged the property. Am I entitled to any of it should we divorce?

ScottGem · Feb 2, 2007, 07:22 AM

If you are on the title you are a half owner.

excon · Feb 2, 2007, 08:09 AM

Hello Freida:

Scott is right. However, there's a little more to it. You probably are entitled to half the increased value of the house since it was transferred, or since you were married, or since you moved in together. Your lawyers will argue as to exactly when that might me.

Before that, however, it was property he brought to the marriage, and it's property he should leave the marriage with.

excon

Fr_Chuck · Feb 2, 2007, 08:42 AM

Most likely yes, nor remember "entited" is a poor word, nothing in law and divorce is a "always, for sure and all the time" it is a maybe, it should, and we will see sort of thing.

If you divorce he will get the best attorney he can and try to show that you did nothing on the home, he was all his money and his house before you got married and more. And then you will have to have an attorney to show case law, and othe evidnce.

Then a judge decides.

Hopefully what happens, and the court tries to make happen is that you and he decide out of court what property division to make and present them with an agreement to rule on.

So while you should, it does not always mean you will.