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    singh2010's Avatar
    singh2010 Posts: 13, Reputation: 1
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    #1

    Apr 27, 2010, 06:30 AM
    binomial distribution mean and variance
    I have two formulas for the mean and variance of binomial distribution, the success with probability p and failure with probability 1-p
    It says on what I have been given that the mean and variance for the number of successes in n trials are given by:

    mean = n x p:
    variance = n x p x (1-p)

    Is this for both successes and failures as above it just says successes in n trials so I am just a bit confused.

    Thanks
    Unknown008's Avatar
    Unknown008 Posts: 8,076, Reputation: 723
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    #2

    Apr 27, 2010, 07:29 AM

    Ok, I'll give you an example.

    Say the probability for success is 0.25, that for failure will be 1 - 0.25 = 0.75. Let n = 10.

    Mean success = 10 x 0.25 = 2.5
    Variance of success = 10 x 0.25 x 0.75 = 1.875

    Now, let's find the ones for failure.

    Mean failure = 10 x 0.75 = 7.5
    Variance of failure = 10 x 0.75 x 0.25 = 1.875

    As you can see, the mean is different, but the variance is the same! :)
    singh2010's Avatar
    singh2010 Posts: 13, Reputation: 1
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    #3

    Apr 27, 2010, 10:03 AM
    Thanks for the help. Much appreciated.
    Unknown008's Avatar
    Unknown008 Posts: 8,076, Reputation: 723
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    #4

    Apr 27, 2010, 10:07 AM

    You're welcome :)

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