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    millerste's Avatar
    millerste Posts: 1, Reputation: 1
    New Member
     
    #1

    Feb 18, 2010, 07:51 PM
    Ask an accountant free
    Guy's

    What are the current ATO rules for a mum & dad investor who use the equity from their joint family home asset (eg $50k) to purchase managed share funds, however, the managed funds are in Dads name only.

    Can Dad claim the total interest expense even though the home equity loan is in joint names and declare income from managed funds that are in his name only?

    If so , does the same rule apply for a residential property investment - use joint loan equity from owner occupier home but purchase new investment home in Mum's name only.

    Cheers
    IntlTax's Avatar
    IntlTax Posts: 831, Reputation: 23
    Tax Expert
     
    #2

    Feb 19, 2010, 09:17 AM

    This forum only deals with U.S. taxes.
    edtan's Avatar
    edtan Posts: 2, Reputation: 1
    New Member
     
    #3

    Jun 28, 2012, 04:48 AM
    Anne and Carol conducted a cooking class. They

    Collected $375 from the participants as registration

    Fees. They used $180 of this money to pay for rental

    Of the kitchen. Carol took the remainder of the $195

    And $205 of her own money for Anne to buy food. Anne

    Spent $351 (she has $49 leftover which she has not

    Returned to Carol). Carol also paid $33 for

    Stationery out of her money. The participants then

    Paid a further $2330 to attend the class. If Anne

    And Carol were to share the profits and costs

    Equally, how much should they each get?
    JudyKayTee's Avatar
    JudyKayTee Posts: 46,503, Reputation: 4600
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    #4

    Jun 28, 2012, 05:39 AM
    What do Anne and Carol have to do with taxes?
    2dogsjb's Avatar
    2dogsjb Posts: 3, Reputation: 1
    New Member
     
    #5

    Jan 31, 2013, 10:26 PM
    Revenue (accrual based accting) is income from sale of goods & services once the good or service has been provided. It does not mean the monies received.
    Gross Profit = Total revenue (inc. all open & closed AR for period been reported but not open historical AR) - COGS. GP = AR1 + AR2 + other) – COGS. Where AR1 = current sales where monies have been collected and AR2 = current sales where monies have not been collected.
    EBIT = Gross Profit – operating expenses – depreciation
    Net Working Capital(NWC) = Current Assets (Inc all open AR historical and this period related) – Current Liabilities. NWC = AR3 + AR2 – Current Liabilities, Where AR3 = prior periods sales where moneis not collected and AR2 = sales where monies have not been collected.

    Cash Flow of the firm = Operating cash flow + Capital Spending + Change in Net working capital

    CF = (AR1 + AR2 – COGS – operating expenses)This year + Capital Change + ((AR3+AR2 – Current liabilities)This year – (AR3+AR2 – Current Liabilties)Last year.

    WHY is it that the cash flow calculation is not a double up of the sales for the current period where monies have not been collected. i.e. AR2.
    AtlantaTaxExpert's Avatar
    AtlantaTaxExpert Posts: 21,836, Reputation: 846
    Senior Tax Expert
     
    #6

    Jan 31, 2013, 10:41 PM
    2dog,

    This is a practical forum for TAXES, NOT an accounting forum, especially one that answers what is obviously a HOMEWORK question, something we are specifically prohibited from doing.
    JudyKayTee's Avatar
    JudyKayTee Posts: 46,503, Reputation: 4600
    Uber Member
     
    #7

    Feb 1, 2013, 07:19 AM
    And here is the exact wording: Ask Me Help Desk - Announcements in Forum : Homework Help
    “Read this first - Expectations for the Homework Help Board:
    Do not simply retype or paste a question from your book or study material

    We won't do your homework questions for you. You were given the assignment for you to learn.

    If you come up with your own answer and post it for us to critique that is within reason.

    If you have some SPECIFIC questions that you couldn't find or didn't understand, we may help with that. But this is your assignment, so show us you have at least attempted to complete it on your own.

    Thank you.”
    EddieZ's Avatar
    EddieZ Posts: 1, Reputation: 1
    New Member
     
    #8

    Apr 25, 2013, 10:54 AM
    Hello,

    In my 2011 tax return I used the insolvency option for a cancelled debt that resulted from a foreclosure on a rental property I owned.

    I am thinking on requesting a short sale of my current home from my lender, if the my lender will not approve the short sale I might just stop paying my mortgage.

    If I incur in another debt cancellation due to short sale or foreclosure, can I again use the insolvency option? Or since this is my primary home can I go the mortgage debt relief act way?

    Thank you
    AtlantaTaxExpert's Avatar
    AtlantaTaxExpert Posts: 21,836, Reputation: 846
    Senior Tax Expert
     
    #9

    Apr 25, 2013, 11:10 AM
    Insolvency is still an option, as long as you can show conclusively that you are still insolvent.

    The Mortgage Debt Relief Act is also an option since it is your personal home.

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