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Lil Sue · May 5, 2009, 09:58 AM

I signed an apartment lease and initialed changes to the terms from 1 year to reflect 6 months. The leasing consultant initialed the change as well. The consultant gave me a copy of the lease that I signed, though she had not signed it yet. It was a weekend transaction, so she said that her manager needed to sign the original and that she would send me a copy with the final signatures. If they make changes after the fact without discussing with me, is my lease binding? My initials are on every page, but I have read about cases where portions of the lease were changed, then forwarded to the tenant as the actual agreement.

ScottGem · May 5, 2009, 11:46 AM

You have a copy, you can compare to see if there are any changes. I don't see anything unusual.

Lil Sue · May 5, 2009, 01:17 PM

Yes, definitely, I will compare when I get the final! I have requested a final, but haven't received it yet. Just wondering if this was a standard practice and what would be my legal recourse if the terms were changed back to 1 year.

AK lawyer · May 5, 2009, 01:41 PM

Originally Posted by Lil Sue

... Just wondering if ... what would be my legal recourse if the terms were changed back to 1 year.

If they make any changes, technically that could constitute a counter-offer. If you occupy the premises and pay rent, they could argue that you accepted the counter-offer. That would be, however, a weak argument, in my opinion, (unless they specifically tell you that they were making changes) and that your version controls.

Wait and see what happens. I would be very surprised if they make any changes.

What, by the way, is a leasing consultant? She represents the lessor (manager)?