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cjwhit · Mar 25, 2009, 11:29 AM

Does a landlord have the right to rent a home to someone when the foreclosure procedures have already began in the state of Florida?

excon · Mar 25, 2009, 11:36 AM

Hello c:

As long as he owns the house, it's his to do with what he pleases.

Is it a NICE thing to do?? Nope.

excon

homesell · May 7, 2009, 05:56 AM

I am a realtor that only sells pre-foreclosed homes in Central Florida. When the owner that is about to lose his house(anywhere between 4 and 12 months later)asks if they can rent the property. I suggest that if they do rent it, it should be for about 50% the normal rental with the renters understanding up front that they must co-operate with realtors wanting to show the home, they must keep the home in good condition, and they will only have 30 days notice in which to move. Some people are willing to do this for a short term rental, some are not, the 50% off rent is an enticement. I think if the renters know the situation before they rent, there is nothing wrong with it.

ScottGem · May 7, 2009, 06:02 AM

A landlord has the right to do almost anything they want as long as the house is in their name. About the only thing they can't do is destroy the house to get the insurance or to get back at the lender.

Foreclosure can be halted almost up to the minute the auction starts. Getting a rental may just be what the owner needs to forestall foreclosure.

That being said, I agree with homesell. If the tenant is aware that foreclosure is a possibility they have a strong negotiating position.

excon · May 17, 2009, 08:47 AM

Hello Annie:

This isn't the place to advertise... Your email address has been removed from your other posts. That should have been a clue.

Besides, why would you expect someone to do business with you about stuff that involves lots of due diligence, when it's clear that you didn't do your due diligence here? If you did, you would have found rules telling you that you can't advertise.

excon