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    mutei's Avatar
    mutei Posts: 1, Reputation: 1
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    #1

    Sep 15, 2004, 11:29 AM
    proof by induction
    prove by induction that n! > 2^n for n>3
    melanie.albury's Avatar
    melanie.albury Posts: 5, Reputation: 2
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    #2

    Sep 20, 2004, 06:20 AM
    Re: proof by induction
    Hi,

    Proof by induction works in 2 steps.

    First you must show that the expression is true for the initial value, which in your case is n = 4 (since n > 3).

    Secondly, assume that the expression is true for n = k, then try to prove it is true for n = k + 1.

    So for your problem:

    Prove that n! > 2^n for all n > 3.

    1. check for n = 4:
    4! = 24 > 16 = 2^4 so this is OK.

    2. assume true for n = k
    i.e.. Assume that k! > 2^k.
    Now we want to prove that it is true for k+1
    i.e.. Want to prove (k+1)! > 2^(k+1)

    (k+1)! = (k+1) * k! > (k+1) * 2^k (since we have assumed k! > 2^k)

    Now k+1 > 4 (since k>3) so k+1 > 2
    so (k+1) * 2^k > 2 * 2^k = 2^(k+1)

    Put this altogether to get (k+1)! > 2^(k+1) which is what we wanted to prove.

    so 1 & 2 are true, hence by the principles of mathematical induction n! > 2^n for all n>3.

    Hope this helps. If there's anything you don't understand let me know. Usually questions like this have that little trick at the end, it just takes a little bit of fiddling around with algebra.

    ;D
    kruthi's Avatar
    kruthi Posts: 2, Reputation: 1
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    #3

    Jan 21, 2006, 10:05 PM
    mathematical induction
    Hi ,

    Could you Please prove me this solution


    Determine by induction all the positive integers valuesof n for which n^3>2^n .prove your claim by mathematical induction.

    Could you Please help me ASAP
    CroCivic91's Avatar
    CroCivic91 Posts: 729, Reputation: 23
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    #4

    Jan 22, 2006, 03:21 AM
    Let's make a table of values:
    Code:
     n | n^3 | 2^n
    ---------------
     1 |  1  |  2
     2 |  8  |  4
     3 | 27  |  8
     4 | 64  |  16
     5 | 125 |  32
    In that table we see that n^3 should be > 2^n for every n which is > 1

    Let's prove it by induction:
    Is it true for 2?
    2^3 = 8 > 4 = 2^2
    It is.

    Presume that n^3 > 2^n for all whole numbers <= n

    Now let's see what is the deal with (n+1)^3 and 2^(n+1)
    (n+1)^3 = n^3 + 3 > 2^n + 3 (because n^3 > 2^n)
    (n+1)^3 > 2^n + 3 > 2^n + 2 (because 3 > 2)
    (n+1)^3 > 2^n + 2 = 2^(n+1)

    So, we have proved that if n^3 > 2^n for some n, then (n+1)^3 > 2^(n+1), and since n^3 > 2^n for n=2, then, by the principle of mathematical induction, it is true for every whole number n which is larger than or equal to 2.
    dmatos's Avatar
    dmatos Posts: 204, Reputation: 26
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    #5

    Jan 22, 2006, 06:23 PM
    Your math is a bit off, even if your method is correct:

    (n+1)^3 = n^3 + 3n^2 + 3n + 1
    Also, 2^(n+1) = 2*2^n, not 2^n + 2

    There is also an upper bound on this inequality. I believe you have to show it is true for positive integers between 2 and 9 inclusive (10^3 = 1000, 2^10 = 1024).

    I think the best way to go about this is to enumerate for all values of n up to 10, then postulate that it is not true for n>=10, and prove this by induction. To prove this, you must in fact prove the converse, i.e. that for n>=10, 2^n > n^3. The first step is simple, show that it is true for n=10. Then assume it's true for all k<=n, show that it's true for k=n+1:

    2^(n+1) = 2*2^n
    (n+1)^3 = n^3 + 3n^2 + 3n + 1

    How does this compare to 2*n^3? Take the cube root of both:

    cubert(2)*n compared to n+1
    (cubert(2)-1)*n copared to 1
    n compared to 1/(cubert(2)-1)
    n compared to approx 3.8473

    This means that if n> 3.8473, 2n^3 > (n+1)^3
    therefore, for n>= 10:
    2^(n+1) = 2*2^n > 2n^3 (inductive assumption)
    > (n+1)^3, or:
    2^(n+1) > (n+1)^3

    We've now proved that 2^n > n^3 for n>= 10 by induction.

    Tah-dah!
    CroCivic91's Avatar
    CroCivic91 Posts: 729, Reputation: 23
    Senior Member
     
    #6

    Jan 22, 2006, 06:53 PM
    Oh my God, my math really does suck.

    Geez, where was I looking? I'll stop giving answers here for a while, because I'm quite ashamed right now :o
    heris's Avatar
    heris Posts: 1, Reputation: 1
    New Member
     
    #7

    Feb 11, 2006, 08:36 PM
    let a>=2 prove that the sequence
    x1= a^(1/2)
    and

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