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    mart1978's Avatar
    mart1978 Posts: 1, Reputation: 1
    New Member
    		  
    #1

    Oct 5, 2007, 11:12 AM
    Credit debt
    This is in regards to receiving a summons to appear in court. I did not get this summons personally it was given to someone else who was not related to me. I was wondering if that is against the law. Wasn't the summons suppose to be given to me personally and I had to sign for it?
    ScottGem's Avatar
    ScottGem Posts: 64,966, Reputation: 6056
    Computer Expert and Renaissance Man
    		  
    #2

    Oct 5, 2007, 11:31 AM
    Depends on the terms in which the summons was issued.

    Its not against the law, but it may constitute improper service if you don't fight the judgement then try to vacate it.
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