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Ultra Member
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Aug 16, 2010, 08:48 AM
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 Originally Posted by Wondergirl
The bolded part is not in the Amendment, is it? That is a broader interpretation of what it actually says.
Again ,the authors of the amendment were clear . Despite what Ex argues, there is not a judge in the country who reads the plain text of the Constitution and uses it as the sole source of their decision.
BTW . US Code confirms my definition of "militia "
10 USC 311 - U.S. Code - Title 10: Armed Forces - 10 USC 311 - Sec. 311. Militia: composition and classes - vLex
(a) The militia of the United States consists of all able-bodied males at least 17 years of age and, except as provided in section 313 of title 32, under 45 years of age who are, or who have made a declaration of intention to become, citizens of the United States and of female citizens of the United States who are members of the National Guard. (b) The classes of the militia are - (1) the organized militia, which consists of the National Guard and the Naval Militia; and (2) the unorganized militia, which consists of the members of the militia who are not members of the National Guard or the Naval Militia.
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Ultra Member
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Aug 16, 2010, 09:10 AM
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 Originally Posted by excon
When Sweden was handing out citizenship, nobody had to prove they were Swedes.
Swedish Citizenship
Foreign nationals who have permanent resident permits (PUTs) and are registered as resident in Sweden largely have the same rights and obligations as Swedish citizens. There are, however, some differences. Only Swedish citizens have an absolute right to live and work in Sweden, and only Swedish citizens are entitled to vote in the Riksdag elections. A foreign citizen cannot be elected to the Riksdag either. There are also a number of posts, such as those of police officers, career officers in the Swedish Armed Forces and some safety service officers, that can only be filled by Swedish citizens. The obligation to do military service only applies to men who are Swedish citizens.
Care to use another country as an example? Mexico, maybe?
PS> Jeez, I'm glad I don't live in Texas. They're NUTS down there.
Now what the heck is that all about? If we're so nuts why is everyone wishing they had our economy, moving themselves and their businesses here and watching our team?
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Ultra Member
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Aug 16, 2010, 09:51 AM
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So 2 wackos makes Texas "nutz." What then would you call the entire left coast? At least none of our elected leaders seem to be concerned that Guam might tip over.
By the way, Navarrette spent a good part of his career in Texas himself so it must not have been too bad.
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New Member
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Aug 21, 2010, 07:37 AM
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I wonder how many convicted felons can gain from their crimes?When one crosses the border illegally they have committed a felony. Now, let's see, have baby gain citizenship for baby,burden taxpayer with expense. If the government won't stop this tatic there must be a hiden agenda.
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Uber Member
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Aug 21, 2010, 07:50 AM
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Hello united:
A couple of corrections are in order...
An immigration violation is a CIVIL offense - not CRIMINAL. To be a convicted felon, one has to BE convicted of a felony. Crossing the border doesn't automatically make that happen. The BABY gains citizenship - the PARENT doesn't. Not all Mexican American babies grow up to a burden to the taxpayer. Some grow up to be governors and things. The government IS stopping this tactic.
Other than that, you did good.
excon
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