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    Remclane's Avatar
    Remclane Posts: 2, Reputation: 1
    New Member
     
    #1

    Sep 6, 2007, 06:58 PM
    Dealing cards
    What is the probability of being dealt 4 aces and one other card?
    worthbeads's Avatar
    worthbeads Posts: 538, Reputation: 45
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    #2

    Sep 6, 2007, 07:12 PM
    52*51*50*49 I would say. I wouldn't count the other card because you will get one other card no matter what. I might be wrong, though.
    Jhaynes1988's Avatar
    Jhaynes1988 Posts: 6, Reputation: 0
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    #3

    Sep 6, 2007, 07:19 PM
    Worth beads is right. You have a 1 in 6497400 chance of being dealt your desired hand.
    Capuchin's Avatar
    Capuchin Posts: 5,255, Reputation: 656
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    #4

    Sep 6, 2007, 11:27 PM
    I think there's a slight correction you can have a look at if you want to be more accurate, remclane.

    If you get the "other card" first, then there's a bigger 1 in 51*50*49*48 chance of getting your 4 aces.

    You can also correct for getting the other card 2nd 3rd or 4th, too.
    Ken 297's Avatar
    Ken 297 Posts: 112, Reputation: 24
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    #5

    Sep 7, 2007, 03:44 AM
    The first ace has four chances in 52, the second 3 out of 51, the third 2 out of 50 and the fourth 1 out of 49.
    Not sure how to work in the other card. I guess it depends on when it comes up
    ebaines's Avatar
    ebaines Posts: 12,131, Reputation: 1307
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    #6

    Sep 7, 2007, 12:10 PM
    The number of was that a 5-card hand can be dealt is 52*51*50*49*48. The number of ways that 5 cards satisfy the condition of 4 aces plus 1 other is 4*3*2*1*48*5 - the extra 5 is because the "other" card can be dealt as any one of the 5 cards. So, the probability you're looking for is:

    4*3*2*1*48*5/(52*51*50*49*48) = 0.000018469, or 1 in 54,145.
    galactus's Avatar
    galactus Posts: 2,271, Reputation: 282
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    #7

    Sep 7, 2007, 04:37 PM
    Yes, I concur with ebaines.

    Choose 4 Aces out of the 4 and one other out of the remaining 48.

    s_cianci's Avatar
    s_cianci Posts: 5,472, Reputation: 760
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    #8

    Sep 8, 2007, 10:28 AM
    Multiply the individual probabilities: P(ace)*P(2nd ace)*P(3rd ace)*P(4th ace)*P(different card)
    galactus's Avatar
    galactus Posts: 2,271, Reputation: 282
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    #9

    Sep 8, 2007, 10:40 AM
    Quote Originally Posted by s_cianci
    Multiply the individual probabilities: P(ace)*P(2nd ace)*P(3rd ace)*P(4th ace)*P(different card)
    That'll work too. BUT, don't forget the arrangements. There are 5 cards with for the same

    So multiply by 5!/4!=5



    Another good approach.

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