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    P Vance's Avatar
    P Vance Posts: 1, Reputation: 1
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    #1

    Jul 23, 2014, 08:27 AM
    Are deed restrictions void once violated and not corrected.
    We have a tract in a Texas hill country subdivision. A property owner, who is an attorney, built an industrial metal building for a residence, which is against the restrictions. He also listed it as a commercial property with the appraisal district which is also a violation. Do these violations now mean the covenant/restrictions are no longer enforceable?
    ScottGem's Avatar
    ScottGem Posts: 64,966, Reputation: 6056
    Computer Expert and Renaissance Man
    		  
    #2

    Jul 23, 2014, 10:36 AM
    Against whom? How long ago did he build? Are these restrictions government imposed or part of a property owner association by laws? Did the subdivision board of directors approve what he did or did he not even ask them?

    There are a lot of factors here that would bear on the answer.
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