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    dontletmego's Avatar
    dontletmego Posts: 22, Reputation: 1
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    #1

    Nov 1, 2012, 10:21 AM
    Tips on how to solve indefinite integral
    ebaines's Avatar
    ebaines Posts: 12,131, Reputation: 1307
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    #2

    Nov 1, 2012, 11:04 AM
    Hint: use integration by parts, two times. First time set u = e^(ax) and dv = cos(bx)dx. I'll let you figure out the rest!
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    dontletmego Posts: 22, Reputation: 1
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    #3

    Nov 1, 2012, 11:36 AM
    Quote Originally Posted by ebaines View Post
    Hint: use integration by parts, two times. First time set u = e^(ax) and dv = cos(bx)dx. I'll let you figure out the rest!
    Here is what I've got:



    In conclusion:

    But what get here is extremely different from the correct answer:


    So where is the mistake?
    ebaines's Avatar
    ebaines Posts: 12,131, Reputation: 1307
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    #4

    Nov 1, 2012, 11:58 AM
    Quote Originally Posted by dontletmego
    So where is the mistake??
    The mistake is after the second equals sign, you should have:



    Note the beta before the integral, which is needed because if then . Same mistake with the second integration by parts. So the "in conclusion" line should be:

    dontletmego's Avatar
    dontletmego Posts: 22, Reputation: 1
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    #5

    Nov 2, 2012, 11:29 AM
    Quote Originally Posted by ebaines View Post
    The mistake is after the second equals sign, you should have:



    Note the beta before the integral, which is needed because if then . Same mistake with the second integration by parts. So the "in conclusion" line should be:

    Thank you!

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