Ask Experts Questions for FREE Help !
Ask
    vsj1421's Avatar
    vsj1421 Posts: 1, Reputation: 1
    New Member
     
    #1

    Jun 25, 2012, 01:05 PM
    Taxes
    My mom died and the property was in my mom , sister and my name. I sold my half to my sister. Do I have to claim it on my income tax
    AtlantaTaxExpert's Avatar
    AtlantaTaxExpert Posts: 21,836, Reputation: 846
    Senior Tax Expert
     
    #2

    Jun 25, 2012, 01:31 PM
    Yes, as a capital gain. Your basis is 50% of the Fair Market Value of the house on the date of your mother's death.

    If, after deducting the costs of the sale, you actually suffered a capital LOSS, you must report the sale, but NO capital gains tax would be due. Unfortunately, a capital loss is NOT deductible, because the house is considered to be personal property.
    ebaines's Avatar
    ebaines Posts: 12,131, Reputation: 1307
    Expert
     
    #3

    Jun 26, 2012, 07:32 AM
    AtlantaTaxExpert: it sounds like the OP was 1/3 owner before his mother died, and he gained another 1/6 ownership upon her death. Does he get to step up the portion of his original cost basis as well as the fraction he inherited?
    AtlantaTaxExpert's Avatar
    AtlantaTaxExpert Posts: 21,836, Reputation: 846
    Senior Tax Expert
     
    #4

    Jun 26, 2012, 08:47 AM
    ebaines:

    You know, I am not sure. You are correct about being 1/3rd owner, so his basis is 33% vice 50%.

    Logically, his basis should be pro-rated to one-third of what HE paid for his portion of the property PLUS one-sixth of the total FMV of the property at his mother's death, but sometimes the tax code is NOT logical.
    ebaines's Avatar
    ebaines Posts: 12,131, Reputation: 1307
    Expert
     
    #5

    Jun 26, 2012, 08:54 AM
    I found an example in an IRS document on figuring cost basis for jointly-owned inherited property here: Publication 551 (07/2011), Basis of Assets - see the section titled "Inherited Property." It would seem that the OP's cost basis is indeed his original cost basis for his 1/3 of the property plus the FMV of the inherited 1/6 piece - so maybe the IRS can be logical after all!
    AtlantaTaxExpert's Avatar
    AtlantaTaxExpert Posts: 21,836, Reputation: 846
    Senior Tax Expert
     
    #6

    Jun 26, 2012, 09:18 AM
    Praise the Lord and pass the ammunition - The IRS is following logic and common sense.

    I could only hope they would do the same in other areas, like the FBAR submission.

Not your question? Ask your question View similar questions

 

Question Tools Search this Question
Search this Question:

Advanced Search

Add your answer here.


Check out some similar questions!

How do I file for taxes? (F1 Visa, OPT, Company does not withhold taxes) [ 1 Answers ]

How do I file for taxes? My situation is: F1 Visa, OPT work authorization, Company does NOT withhold taxes. I began work in September 6 2011 (two month probation) and became full time on November 15 2011. I received bi-weekly checks since September 6. Please help. Thank you.

Paid internship no taxes being withheld from paychecks. What taxes am I liable for? [ 3 Answers ]

I graduated college in May, 2010 and have accepted a paid intership through December 31, 2010. I am getting paychecks every two weeks for the amount of hours worked with no taxes being withheld. What taxes am I liable for?

I didn't file my 2008 taxes because I didn't work will it affect my 2009 taxes? [ 1 Answers ]

I stopped working before the 2008 tax season started. I went to school for the year and didn't file my taxes. Will it affect my taxes for 2009?

Can I buy a used car in GA and pay GA taxes without paying taxes in my home state [ 1 Answers ]

Can I buy a used car in GA and pay GA taxes without paying taxes in my home state?

How to Claim Social Security taxes & medicare taxes [ 1 Answers ]

Hello, I worked on my CPT and OPT from July 2006 to June 2008 and paid Social Security taxes & medicare taxes, how can I claim them back? Thank you.


View more questions Search