
Originally Posted by
bj3451
Nowadays, it is common to be able to purchase a Big Screen HDTV
and be able to take it home without paying any cash -- instead, one has
an obligation to pay in full, let us say $3000 after 3 years.
Really?
When I bought my big screen TV I paid for it with all cash. Well a credit card, but I then paid the bill off when I got it.

Originally Posted by
bj3451
$3000 after 3 years.
How does the retailer (BestBuy, or BigScreenStore) and the manufacturer (Sony, Samsung) account for this transaction?
On to your question…
First, we need to clarify the players here.
Sony, the manufacturer sells the TV (for lets say 1,000) to BestBuy.
Sony records the transaction as Dr. Cash 1,000 and Cr. Sales 1,000.
Sony is now out of the picture.
BestBuy record the transaction as:
Dr. Inventory/Purchases 1,000
Cr. Cash 1,000
Now, when BestBuy sells the TV to you for 3,000, their JE would be:
Dr. AR 3,000
Cr. Sales 3,000
Also, BestBuy has some options. They can record an allowance for doubtful accounts (AFDA) since they know some of the AR will not be collected by people in 3 years.
But what they most likely do (I know Leon’s does this), is that they most likely just turn around and sell the Accounts Receivable to a collection agency.
For example, BestBuy would sell the AR to George’s Collection Company (GCC). GCC would get the rights to collect 3,000 from you in 3 years, but only have to pay BestBuy let’s say 2,200 today in cash.