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    sidhra's Avatar
    sidhra Posts: 3, Reputation: 1
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    #1

    Jan 29, 2011, 08:00 AM
    Why is the divorce valid when th man says talak 3 times and woman doesn't have her say
    Fr_Chuck's Avatar
    Fr_Chuck Posts: 81,301, Reputation: 7692
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    #2

    Jan 29, 2011, 08:13 AM

    Valid in what terms, it is according to religious law.

    Same as the Catholic church does not view divorce as valid and would require a church annulment.

    In countries where there are other legal systems beyond Islamic church law, they will need to also follow the laws of that nation to also divorce.

    But it is valid by their church law because that is how the law is written.
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