No, I don't think it does. On its face there is case law. Of course, this is in the US but Canadian law also refers to "commercial situations": "Does the tort of deceit apply in "non-commercial situations"? No, according to the decision in Neurosurgery and Spine Surgery S.C. v. Goldman, 2003 Ill. App. LEXIS 677 (2d Dist., May 29), answering a question of first impression in Illinois.
"Simply put," Justice Barbara Gilleran Johnson explained -- after reviewing the history of this tort, along with treatises and cases from other jurisdictions -- "fraudulent misrepresentation has emerged as a tort distinct from the general milieu of negligent and intentional wrongs and applies
only to interferences with financial or commercial interests where a party suffers some pecuniary loss."
Applying this limitation, the Appellate Court affirmed an order dismissing a deceit claim that involved a "non-commercial situation."
COURT DECLINES TO EXPAND TORT OF DECEIT BEYOND COMMERCIAL TRANSACTIONS
In the US even if the woman lies the Courts have looked on the situation as an error or mistake (even it's deliberate) and there is case law that if NOT having a child is that important to one of the parties, THAT PARTY is responsible for protecting himself/herself and must not rely on the other person's statements. A search of AMHD should turn up the exact case law. It's been posted before.
Again, the mother left, you filed and this has been pending for a year? A year when you've seen your child once? I'm sure she is going to make the argument that you didn't want the child in the first place so why do you want visitation? I don't think it will "fly" but that's the argument I would make.
I am concerned about your "as a condition of moving in" statement - women aren't chattel. They can come and go. You made up the rules and she consented to them? Sounds like the 1800's to me.