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    pourre's Avatar
    pourre Posts: 3, Reputation: 1
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    #1

    Jun 21, 2009, 09:17 PM
    Inheritance / usufruct
    My widowed fiance' tells me he can sell the house without giving his children their inheritance. If he can do this does it mean he has 100% ownership of the house?

    Would the children have to sign papers when he sells the house if they have a small percentage of ownership?
    stinawords's Avatar
    stinawords Posts: 2,071, Reputation: 150
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    #2

    Jun 21, 2009, 09:30 PM

    Please do not open a new thread and repeat a question that you already asked. If you have another question or more to add simply use the answer section at the bottom of that thread. The two of them need to be merged.
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