Ask Experts Questions for FREE Help !
Ask
    ziggyisthe1's Avatar
    ziggyisthe1 Posts: 6, Reputation: 1
    New Member
     
    #1

    Jan 27, 2009, 07:58 AM
    Filling out the Schedule D for inheritance
    My brother and I inherited our mom's house in July 2007. We sold it in Sept 2008. We both received a 1099S for $31,000. The house had FMV of $83,700 and we sold it for $62,000.00. Is this a loss? On Schedule D, line 8, do I put 1/2 the sales price in 'D', since it is divided equally between us? What do I put on 'E'? Can we claim the realtor costs, and closing costs, etc? The instructions say to write INHERITED in the place where it says date inherited. Thank you so much for any help. Frank :)
    AtlantaTaxExpert's Avatar
    AtlantaTaxExpert Posts: 21,836, Reputation: 846
    Senior Tax Expert
     
    #2

    Jan 27, 2009, 03:19 PM
    Frank:

    It appears that you are in a bit over your head.

    For this reason, I suggest you get professional tax help to be sure that this IS reported correctly.

    To answer your question, yes, you CAN report the loss if you NEVER lived in the property since your mother's death.
    ziggyisthe1's Avatar
    ziggyisthe1 Posts: 6, Reputation: 1
    New Member
     
    #3

    Jan 28, 2009, 06:35 AM

    The house was empty, it was for sale for quite awhile. We had to clean it out and paint, etc.
    AtlantaTaxExpert's Avatar
    AtlantaTaxExpert Posts: 21,836, Reputation: 846
    Senior Tax Expert
     
    #4

    Jan 29, 2009, 08:14 AM
    You never lived in it, so it should be considered an investment property. That being the case, you CAN claim the loss.

    Yes, you can add the realtor, fix-up and cleaning costs to the basis to claim those costs.

    If you have no long-term or short-term capital gains to offset the loss, the most you can claim for 2008 is $3,000.

    The remaining loss is carried forward to future years to offset gains or $3,000 per year of income until you use it up.
    ziggyisthe1's Avatar
    ziggyisthe1 Posts: 6, Reputation: 1
    New Member
     
    #5

    Jan 29, 2009, 08:29 AM

    How can it be investment property, it sat there empty for sale, for a year.
    AtlantaTaxExpert's Avatar
    AtlantaTaxExpert Posts: 21,836, Reputation: 846
    Senior Tax Expert
     
    #6

    Jan 29, 2009, 02:34 PM
    To be a private residence (and thus ineligible for loss claim on the sale), one must LIVE in it or show INTENT to live in it.

    It is clear that neither brother showed such intent, so. By default, it would be considered an investment property.
    ziggyisthe1's Avatar
    ziggyisthe1 Posts: 6, Reputation: 1
    New Member
     
    #7

    Feb 11, 2009, 07:54 AM

    Thanks so much for your help.

Not your question? Ask your question View similar questions

 

Question Tools Search this Question
Search this Question:

Advanced Search

Add your answer here.


Check out some similar questions!

Schedule 40 & Schedule 80 Pipe? [ 1 Answers ]

I am curious what the difference is between Schedule 40 & 80 pipe? And where/when is it used? Also if someone could also help me regarding Class 200 & Class 315 pipe, and Solvent Weld pipe I would greatly appreciate it. Thanks.

Schedule E and Schedule C [ 1 Answers ]

What's the difference of schedule C and E? Does it matter if any of them it's use? Thanks for your suggestions.

Schedule avg [ 2 Answers ]

I have avg version 8.0.81. I would like to schedule a whole system scan at 1 am. I've tried to schedule the scan In the program Itself also windows task scheduler, & a combination of both. Would someone help me with this?? Thanks

Schedule A Deductions and Schedule C - No AGI [ 1 Answers ]

Hi, I am a sole proprietor (an electrician) and after finishing schedule c I basically had very little profit to report from the business. With no other Adj Gross Inc, I started to figure my itemized deductions, but with no Adj Gross Inc, how can I best use my itemized deductions? Thanks,


View more questions Search