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Jonish · May 7, 2008, 01:04 PM

I lived in the same apartment in Portland, Oregon for two and a half years. Recently I informed my landlord that I would be moving out and moving across the country. I found two people to take over the apartment to continue the year long lease of which at time of moving out I would be halfway through with. He told me that he would not charge me a "lease breakage fee" even though there was a clause in the lease stating that there was to be no subletting. Everything seemed fine and I've been waiting patiently for my deposit back in the mail.

Today I got a hand written note in the mail detailing over $4,000 in charges that I "owe"! Everything from unpaid rent (?? ) to late fees AND a lease breakage free of 1 1/2 times a month of rent.

I know I've certainly NEVER not paid my rent. You would think if you didn't pay it or there was a problem, someone would say something. Maybe it was late a day or two a few times, but that's at most I can think of. He also made us pay in money orders instead of checks (shady) so I can't reference my bank account to show checks being cashed.

My question is, can he actually save up all these fees and charges until I moved out and attempt to spring them all at once on me like this? Is there some sort of statute of limitations? The lease clearly states that unpaid rent will result in eviction. Eviction was something that was never mentioned in my 2 1/2 years there. It's also painfully clear that he didn't have a problem with my friends taking over the lease.

Help. The man is a slumlord (and slightly senile from what I can tell) and I need to know what I can do. The woman who runs his office had no idea what was going on either.

N0help4u · May 7, 2008, 01:09 PM

I would think that his accepting rent in the 'new' tenants name(s) should be proof to court that he accepted and agreed to your breaking the lease and subletting
I do believe that you can get the money order places to verify what payments went where if necessary. Did you save any of the money order stubs?

Jonish · May 7, 2008, 01:15 PM

Originally Posted by N0help4u

I would think that his accepting rent in the 'new' tenants name(s) should be proof to court that he accepted and agreed to your breaking the lease and subletting
I do believe that you can get the money order places to verify what payments went where if necessary. Did you save any of the money order stubs?

No, I never saved the stubs. I didn't imagine something like this would happen.

N0help4u · May 7, 2008, 01:19 PM

You may still be able to get help with the money order place if you know where you got them but even so his accepting payment from them shows he is trying to double dip. Also him not going after you before this shows he is trying to pull a fast one because if he felt you owed he would have been after you to pay up all along.
I think the fact that he accepted payment from them and never followed up for payment all these months is enough for a Judge to see right through him.

Fr_Chuck · May 7, 2008, 03:33 PM

If he is now renting to new tennants, you have no liablity for rent after the date he rented, But you can be liable for all charges your lease says, unless you have something in writing to prove he agreed to not charge you.

N0help4u · May 7, 2008, 03:42 PM

He is renting to somebody else and she wants to know if she is still liable to the lease since he has been okay with renting to who she is subleasing to all this time.
So I would think it would be the first part of your reply that she has no liability starting from the date he was collecting rent from others.
She might be responsible for some things such as breaking the lease fee, but to have to pay rent when he was collecting from others sounds like double dipping.