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Originally Posted by Tj3

BTW, the OT was written in Hebrew, not Greek.

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I did give the Hebrew word and added the Greek parallel in parens.

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Originally Posted by Wondergirl

But not a sin. Only an offense that requires ritual cleansing.

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Where did you see this saying that it was "not a sin"?

Are you telling us that those things which are morally disgusting, and an abhorrence to God are not seen as sin to Him?

Are you saying that following idols and false gods are not sins?

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Originally Posted by classyT

If what you mean by fundametalist Christian is a person who reads the word and believes it without putting any spin on it....hey, count me IN!

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Or the "original" (as far back as we can go) language it was written in?

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Originally Posted by classyT

If what you mean by fundametalist Christian is a person who reads the word and believes it without putting any spin on it....hey, count me IN!

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Me too!!

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Originally Posted by Tj3

If two men have sex together, whatever possesses you to say that they are straight. At best, an argument could be made for bi-sexual, which is a variant on homosexuality, but straight? Hardly.

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Where in prison are the women for the straight men? Are all straight male prisoners chaste?

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Originally Posted by Wondergirl

Or the "original" (as far back as we can go) language it was written in?

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How far back do you want to go? We can trace the text back well over 2,000 years now and can see no changes other than things like word spelling changes, a missing letter here or there, and that sort of thing.

No other ancient document can boast of an accuracy even remotely close, and so much evidence to back it up by means of tens of thousands of manuscripts from varied sources.

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Originally Posted by Tj3

We don't have Hebrew????????? Tell that to any Jew and see what they say.



We do have the original content - perhaps the original autograph, but we have the content.

Or you are now going further and denying that the whole Bible can be trusted?

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We do? No translator ever made a mistake in copying what was already not the original?

This is off-topic.

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Originally Posted by Wondergirl

Where in prison are the women for the straight men? Are all straight male prisoners chaste?

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We could discuss various sexual perversions, and we could discuss the meaning of the word "willpower", but that is simply distracting from the point that a man who has sex with a man is a homosexual to one degree or another.

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Originally Posted by Wondergirl

We do? No translator ever made a mistake in copying what was already not the original?

This is off-topic.

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You should study the evidence. It would boggle you mind to see how accurately the documents have been copied.

BTW - your reference to "translation" is not relevant. The original text was copied, and then subsequently translated. We do not need to depend upon the translation - we can go back to the original language.

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Originally Posted by Tj3

We could discuss various sexual perversions, and we could discuss the meaning of the word "willpower", but that is simply distracting from the point that a man who has sex with a man is a homosexual to one degree or another.

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Not necessarily. He performs a homosexual act but does not have to be homosexual to do it.

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Originally Posted by Tj3

You should study the evidence. It would boggle you mind to see how accurately the documents have been copied.

BTW - your reference to "translation" is not relevant. The original text was copied, and then subsequently translated. We do not need to depend upon the translation - we can go back to the original language.

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I have studied it, and I apologize about the mistyped word. I meant copyist.

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Originally Posted by Wondergirl

Not necessarily. He performs a homosexual act but does not have to be homosexual to do it.

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Really? I can see only one case in which that could be true - the victim of homosexual rape. Past that,

Or do you have your own definition of homosexual

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Homosexual

Adjective
1. sexually attracted to members of your own sex [ant: bisexual, heterosexual]

Noun
1. someone who practices homosexuality; having a sexual attraction to persons of the same sex
WordNet® 3.0, © 2006 by Princeton University.
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Originally Posted by Wondergirl

I have studied it, and I apologize about the mistyped word. I meant copyist.

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If you have studied it, then you know that the accuracy of the copying through the centuries is beyond question.

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Originally Posted by Tj3

Really? I can see only one case in which that could be true - the victim of homosexual rape.

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Prison rape is committed only by homosexuals?

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Originally Posted by Wondergirl

Prison rape is committed only by homosexuals?

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No. I heard about a rape of a female prison guard by male prisoners the other day.

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Originally Posted by Tj3

No. I heard about a rape of a female prison guard by male prisoners the other day.

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Prison rape has everything to do with power/control and very little, if anything, to do with sex.

***ADDED -- Gang rape during gang initiation of both females and males is the same kind of thing. There are many instances of rape of males and females and even children during war, after a country has been conquered, etc.

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Originally Posted by Wondergirl

Prison rape has everything to do with power/control and very little, if anything, to do with sex.

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Sex is involved.

******RESPONSE TO YOUR ADDITION*****

You asked about whether prison rape was all homosexual and I responded. Please try to stay on the same topic.

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Originally Posted by Tj3

Sex is involved.

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Because that goes right to the heart of a person's most vulnerable self -- physically, emotionally, spiritually. No one is thinking lust and desire. They are only thinking control.

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Originally Posted by Wondergirl

Because that goes right to the heart of a person's most vulnerable self -- physically, emotionally, spiritually. No one is thinking lust and desire. They are only thinking control.

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Ignoring your claim to be able to read the minds of others, the definition of "homosexual" does not contain any reference regarding why they do it, therefore your claims are not germaine to the definition of the word.

Added to that, a male who was not interested in another male would be unable to perform a sex act on another man.

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Originally Posted by Tj3

How far back do you want to go? We can trace the text back well over 2,000 years now and can see no changes other than things like word spelling changes, a missing letter here or there, and that sort of thing.

No other ancient document can boast of an accuracy even remotely close, and so much evidence to back it up by means of tens of thousands of manuscripts from varied sources.

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This is outright HOGWASH. There are tons of variant readings in the manuscript tradition and many of them are substantial.

That anyone claiming to have studied that history of the Bible and its transmission could say such a thing is just embarrassing. There is a massive cottage industry devoted to the problems associated with the Bible's transmission, and there are catalogues of the variant mss. Readings.

The manuscript traditions is a MESS!