Our fault, or the salesman's?
So, one day in April 2005, my parents went to visit a car dealership to purchase a used car, a black 2001 Chrysler Neon. We bought insurance, the plates, etc... After it ran into mechanical trouble, they traded it in for a 2005 Dodge SX2.0 . The salesman was the same one that sold them the used car. The salesman said that he'll take care of the paperwork (ie. Faxing the Bill of Sales to the insurance office). We had a witness that heard the salesman say that he'd fax the paperwork. We had this car for some time.
In January 2006, the car crashed. We called the insurance company to attempt to file a claim, but they said that the insurance we had was still under the black Neon's car, meaning we were driving the Dodge for a few months without insurance. Now, we tried to reason with them, but it didn't help.
All we got back was $2000 for the totalled car and about $1000 for the portion of the insurance policy that was unused. My father understood that he was supposed to show the Bill of Sales to the insurance company physically.
Are we entitled to anything else? It's been over a year since then, so I don't think so. I live in Toronto, Ontario, Canada. Thanks.