Why is it assuming technological change in the solow model is labour augmenting?
If technological progress is assumed to be capital augmenting, then does it follow that the marginal productivity of capital increases and thus the rate of return on capital also increases?
(Or when piketty etc talk about the rate of return of capital they don't mean the production function input?).
I guess the return on capital and capital share of income can increase even if we assume tech change is labour augmenting?