Hi,
I have a pending criminal trial U/S 304B IPC. Chemical examiner report of my deceased wife suggests that Lorazepam has been found in all body organs. But the quantity of the Lorazepam was uncertain. It could be extremely low or extremely high as well. Medical Board of Doctors suggests that cause of death is Asphyxia Due To Aspiration. There can be numerous causes for it i.e. due to low concentration of oxygen, high levels of carbon mono-oxide, fit attack. At the time of death my wife was in bathroom she had washed clothes before taking bath. She spent ample amount of time in bathroom and during all that time gas geyser was on. There is low ventilation in bathroom. Doctors have also suggested that Asphyxia could also occur due to low concentration of oxygen in the bathroom which leads to suffocation and further unconsciousness which may induce to vomit that can block the windpipe and deceased unable to throw up the vomit as she was unconscious and died by Asphyxia Due To Aspiration.
I know it’s an accident. But doctor has given statements that death in this case is either due to intake or higher dose of Lorazepam or due to gas geyser.
Here I need your help. I want to prove Lorazepam is not the cause of death. I am sending you deceased medical reports for your reference.
Please reply soon.
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(To much of the world, gas geysers are called gas water heaters, small tanks on the wall or under a sink. I think this case is in India, from the numbers and letters of the case.)

Most of us here won't open links, sorry. It isn't going to be helpful to read medical reports anyway.

Why CRIMINAL trial? Against you? You are charged with suffocating her? Please explain. This makes no sense to me. If the report says 'death in this case is either due to intake or higher dose of Lorazepam or due to gas geyser,' then why would that be criminal? Criminal negligence? It sounds more like accident, suicide, or a civil case against the builder of the house or the maker of the geyser, or the landlord/owner.

Please explain!

[EDIT: I opened the links and they seem to be safe. They don't help at all, except we know her age was 31.]

I'm wondering, since this was last year, if you are having difficulty trying to prove to someone, either in the religious or insurance community, that she didn't commit suicide?

If you are trying to prove something you have to hire recognised experts in the field.. they will have to either appear in court or file a deposition which will be under oath and in front of both sides legal teams.

Coming up with a "I found this on the internet" defense isn't going to work too well.

On reviewing the limited records, it is impossible for us to help you prove that Lorazepam is not the cause of death.

Sounds like trying to write a crime thriller.

Hi All,
Thanks for your response.
Deceased was my wife. My In-laws put a false case against me that I was demanding dowry due to which she was mentally upset and that's why she had taken the extreme step to commit suicide. However, I have given several evidence that I haven't demanded anything or there is no issue between us.

But the issue is she have died and as she have died inside my house. Now, I have to prove how she died. Means I have to prove that it is an accident.

I know it's an accident and I am totally innocent, but as lorazepam was detected in my wife body (however the quantity of lorazepam is not sure, I know quantity is less ,as she was unable to wash clothes if she have taken large quantity of lorazepam), but they are supposing she have taken the large quantity to commit suicide until I will prove that death in this case not due to lorazepam.I have chat with various experts in India as well, but all in vain. That's why I have put it on this site to get some help and prove my innocence.
Nor this belong to any religious or neither I have to prove this to insurance company. This is all to save myself to get conviction in the crime which has not been committed.

Unfortunately, we cannot help you. This is a global website and laws vary by location. You need to trust in your attorney, not strangers over the internet who are half a world away.

Doesn't matter where you are at. Without a sharp legal mind and a doctor to back up your case, you spin your wheels.

It is basically impossible to obtain the 3,000 mg or so needed for a lethal dose, so she didn't die of the drug. (Your argument is pretty useless too, that she was able to wash clothes. No one knows when she washed clothes and when she took the drugs.) It sounds plausible that she took the drugs, turned on the gas, and washed clothes for a while, then gagged from the gas, and passed out, dying from the gas, and the drugs enabled her to be sleepy enough to not try to change her mind. BUT no court is going to go by what is plausible, and it's just as plausible that it was an accident.

So if you are the defendant, you MUST hire a good lawyer. It is very easy to find out about lethal doses of any drug, online, or any doctor can testify. Most people here are not from India so are not familiar with the possibility of someone bringing a criminal case to court this way, and with such flimsy evidence as demands for a dowry. Only the government can bring a criminal case. Is your case really criminal, or civil (wrongful death in this situation)?

Was the gas on with or without flame?

There are just too many questions that this could go on for days. You don't seem to have a good grasp of describing details, sorry. Talk to a lawyer.

Ok, the OP has clarified the issues somewhat:

He is a suspect in his wife's death. She appearantly committed suicide, but he wants to prove that the death is not due to an overdose of Lorazepam. Why? If she died from taking Lorazepam, asphixiation, or some combination of the two, isn't the question to be asked whether he had a hand in her death? So again, what difference does it make whether she died from Lorazepam overdose?

Did he obtain the drug for her?
Was it medically prescribed for her?
Did he force her to take it?
Did he contribute to the psychological condition for which the drug was prescribed?

"Lorazepam is not usually fatal in overdose, but may cause fatal respiratory depression if taken in overdose with alcohol. The combination also causes synergistic enhancement of the disinhibitory and amnesic effects of both drugs, with potentially embarrassing or criminal consequences." Lorazepam - Wikipedia, the free encyclopedia

Even in India, I think, the defendant is innocent until the plaintiffs prove their case. You don't have to 'prove' what caused her death - your job is to show that they can't prove that her death was caused by you.
You say you have talked to experts all over India in vain. I think we can see why! You seem to be putting a lot of weight on her intake of the drug AND on trying to prove how she died. Your defense is that you weren't in the bathroom with her, didn't smother her, were somewhere else! Your defense is that ALL YOU KNOW is that the gas was on in a small room, that she was in there a long time, and that she took some amount of the drug.
The PLAINTIFFS need a much better medical report anyway - how much gas was in her blood, how long she was deprived of O2, and how much drug was in her system.

This is so full of holes that in the US it would be thrown out in 2 seconds. It would never make it to trial.

Anyone can file a lawsuit, but you haven't told us why it's been so long and whether a lawyer has told you that this is not going to go anywhere.