Contract for Deed in Texas defaulted notice given but tenant will not sign warranty deed to clear title for sale?

Why should the tenant need to? If this was truly a Contract for Deed, then the owner should have retained title until the contract was defaulted. When the buyer defaulted, they should have reverted to a tenant subject to eviction.

So why do you think you need the tenant to sign any sort of deed. If you signed a deed to the buyer, then it isn't a contract for deed, but a mortgage. In that case you will need to go through a foreclosure process.

On a contract for deed, the tenant ( or buyer) is not given a deed. The deed is not transferred until the buyer makes the last payment.

If done correctly, ( and it sounds like it was not) the seller, keeps deed in their name, and all the buyer has is a contract. The buyer would never get a deed, until all money is paid.

If in default, they are nothing but a renter and get evicted.

If the contract was somehow recorded, it may be regarded as a cloud on title. In that case, the owner would have to sue to clear the title.

I would think winning an eviction order would do that.

Well, in many places eviction actions are limited in scope. You get the writ of eviction and perhaps past-due rent, but perhaps not other remedies such as to clear title.

But I don't know that going to court for the purpose of eviction the former buyer (now tenant) is necessary. OP didn't say. For all we know, the person has already moved out.