is it logical that velocity gradient is to become zero for one dimensional steady state flow of incompressible fluids.if yes what about if the fluid particle is accelarating,does it not flow continuity?

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Originally Posted by unniyettan

is it logical that velocity gradient is to become zero for one dimensional steady state flow of incompressible fluids.

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Sure, why not? Velocity gradient = fluid acceleration = 0 at that point.

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Originally Posted by unniyettan

if yes what about if the fluid particle is accelarating,does it not flow continuity?

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If velocity gradient = 0 and a single particle is accelerating that would mean that another particle must be decelerating; but then it wouldn't be 1-dimensional incompressible fluid flow. So I don't see how this could happen. Please clarify what you maen by thiis: "does it not flow continuity?"