My wife and I have somebody sueing us for the second time in 4 months he's our exlandlord and he is mad at us because we countersued him the first time and is now suing us for fraudulent claims, shouldn't he have listed all his causes of action in his first suit, does this constitute harassment

Has his cause of action significantly changed, as you can't sue for "fraudulent claims", least not as a civil action.

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Originally Posted by Curlyben

Has his cause of action significantly changed, as you can't sue for "fraudulent claims", least not as a civil action.

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Yes, they significantly changed, originally for property damage now stating for horse boarding and unpaid loans