I started being sexually active with my now husband in Sept, 2011, was tested for STDs in Nov. 2011 and it was negative. I have not been with anyone since I was retested a few days ago, and I'm positive for Chlamydia? How could this happened? Is the only answer cheating?

Yes.

So the only one you've had sex with is your husband... but you turned up with an STD... sounds like someone is cheating.

Hello J,

I am regretful to inform you that infidelity is likely the source of the chlamydia. Has he been tested yet? Chlamydia is a bacterial infection versus virus though and should be readily curable through antibiotics. It is possible though that he did not know he had contracted it previous to your first sexual encounter and it didn't transmit to you within that first month. Chlamydia can be asymptomatic and is not always noticeable. Also if condoms were in use during that first month the risk may have been reduced. Regardless I believe it is time that you sit down and have a conversation with your husband. Goodluck, and keep us updated.

-fdsaqwerish

If you were negative in November 2011 and you're positive now, had no other sexual partners, I would ask your husband for an explanation.

Before you husband, when was your last sexual encounter with someone other than your husband? Were you using protection before the test? After the test? Did you ever use condoms?

It looks bad for him, though there is a window where he could be faithful and still infect you. I would have to agree that I am leaning towards cheating.

You have some good answers. I would like to add that a good relationship has to have honesty, respect, trust, and caring, and a willingness to talk about anything.
Both of you need to be honest with each other and have a talk. See a doctor.

There is a slight chance, for it not to be cheating but very small chance. There is chance for false test reading first time, or it was not showing up yet.