I had an employee tested for Opiates. He claims he was given two 500mg hydrocodone pills due to a visit to the ER for dehydration less than 48 hours prior to testing. The printed results were as follows: Morhpine (U) out of range - 354.0 - ref range is >5.0 ng/ml.
The following were all within range: Oxymorphone, Hydromorphone, Codeine, Hydrocodone, Oxycodone, 6-Monoacetylmorphine, Dihydrocodeine, Noroxycodone, Misc. Confirm LC/MS/Ms U - Fentanyl (U) LC/MS/MS, Sufentanil, Norfentanyl, Naltrexone, Tramadol, Carisoprodol, Meprobamate and Meperidine
The person at the lab was no help in the reading of the results. I asked her if this was a positive result for Morphine. She said yes. Since the urine collection was taken approximately 44 hours after the supposed dose of Vicadin, would the Morphine result be so high if Hydrocodone was the only source? Remember,the Hydrocodone result was within range, so this means there was none detected? How recent would the morphine had been administered to a 33 year old 180 lb physically fit male for it to register 354.0 and in what form? The employee claims the ER staff attempted to stick him several times in order to administer an IV and they could not find a good vein and he left the hospital on his own with nothing given to him except the two 500 mg pills of Vicadin. I need help in sorting all this out.