If the 1st lien holder forecloses on a property can the 2nd lien holder seek monies?

When the 1st lien holder forecloses, if the property sells for more than the first lien, the rest of that money is paid to the 2nd lien holder.

But almost never is there even enough money to pay the 1st lien, so the 2nd is normally out the money and have to attempt to collect though other means such as a judgement.