The first day of my last period was August 14, 2010. I had my son on May 31 of 2011. According to my gynecologist, that means I would have ovulated at the end of August, the 28th or around there. By September 15, I had already missed my period, a few weeks later a pregnancy test confirmed this. For the past 2 years, a guy that I knew slightly at the time, has been saying that I slept with him on Sept 15, and that my son could be his. I know for a fact I did not sleep with him, however he has convinced his mother of this and I am constantly being harrasssed by these people. I have my medical records showing my last period date and other information that's relevant and I am handling this in court. My question is, would it even be possible for my last period to have been Aug 14th, and not ovulate until a month later, after I had already missed my period? Instead of ovulating 14 or so days after your period, could you ovulate 30 days later, with aug 14th being your only period between the 2 dates? My point being, whether people believe myself or him, it doesn't matter if I slept with him September 15, and every day since then, I had already conceived at the end of August, correct?

You are correct. What a shame you have to settle this in court.

Thank u, I appreciate your insight, it's a shame that this person who is doing this to me was actually in jail until sept 3 as well, yet still has his mother convinced he could be the father of my child. This was a planned baby with a boyfriend of 12 years and this has ruined our relationship, having this brought up on a constant basis. Thanks again for answering...