(cosx/(1-sin^2)) + ((1-sinx)/cosx) = 2secx
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(cosx/(1-sin^2)) + ((1-sinx)/cosx) = 2secx
No, it doesn't. Using 1-sin^2x = cos^2x, the first term is equivalent to 1/cosx. Add that to the second term and you get (2-sinx)/cosx, which is not the same thing as 2secx
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