My ex-husband and I agreed in our divorce agreement that I would stay on the mortgage but not the deed until the house sells or 2 years from the dage of the agreement.

I just found out on line that the house sold on July 9. Is he required to notify me of the sale? I have been emailing him but he will not respond. How do I find out if I am no longer attached to that mortgage?

If it sold. As the lienholder... the mortgage debt would have been satified before transferring to the new owners and their mortgage company.

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Originally Posted by kwoodsy63

My ex-husband and I agreed in our divorce agreement that I would stay on the mortgage but not the deed until the house sells or 2 years from the dage of the agreement.

I just found out on line that the house sold on July 9. Is he required to notify me of the sale? I have been emailing him but he will not respond. How do I find out if I am no longer attached to that morgage?

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Call the mortgage company and ask. It would seem that if the house sold the mortgage was paid off.

Were you to receive money from the sale?

Why would you stay on the loan, but not on the deed, that makes no sense. Since it gave you no rights to the house what so ever.

But he had no obligation to tell you anything, and had it not sold or pay for it, you would have been stuck paying for a house you had no legal rights to.

But just be glad the house sold, you can verify with the lender that the note was satisfied, Also can check that the deed was transferred

Unfortunately the worst scenario is to not be on the deed but be on the mortgage. This means you are liable for the debt of the loan but do not own the property. So, your husband can sell the property without your knowledge or notifing you. Had you been on the deed, they would have required you to sign off the deed in order to deed over to the new owners.

I agree with Fr Chuck, be glad it sold and you aren't liable for a loan of a house you don't own.