Hello,

This is a follow-up question. The deed lists four names (either wrong or misspelled), and one name that is correct as owners of property left by my grandfather, intestate, to his children, one of whom was my father (deceased). The four wrong/misspelled names are my father's grandchildren (the children of only one of my half-sisters). Her (my half-sister) mother (not mine) is guardian of her (my half-sister's) children and has been receiving tax notices since 2003, but has not paid them. I am my father's oldest daughter by his first wife, but I was never notified that the property had been distributed. I learned about it when I received a notice sent to all interested parties that the property will be up for foreclosure. It is over 23 acres. If they don't pay the taxes, it will go up for bids. I cannot afford to bid, but I can pay the overdue taxes. Although my name is not on the deed, could the following wording be a possible loophole: The deed lists the four wrong or misspelled names, the name of one sibling, and then, it says: "and the estate of and/or heirs at law of (my father's name). Could I fit in that description?

Thank you in advice for your help

I would consult with a real estate attorney, but it certainly sounds like it. More importantly, if you pay the taxes that have been allowed to default by the other owners you might even be able to take sole possession of the property.

Thank you. Your answer is on-point.

Please consult with a real estate attorney before paying the taxes. Reason: once the property is nolonger in default, your relatives may have a new found interest in the property. It might be better to have them sign over their interest before you bring the taxes current.

I checked with the tax commissioner, who says all interested parties would have to agree before anyone can sell the property, but I had not thought about other "new found interest". I will consider them now. Thanks for the help.