I was hired as a salaried employee, based on 40 hrs per week; no contract signed, just a verbal agreement. During July and Aug this year I'm being cut to 20 hrs per week at an hourly pay rate of $6.00 per hr less than my "salary" rate. Then in Sept I'm being bumped back up to 40 hrs per week, at the salary rate. However during 6 months of the year, when I'm on "salary", I actually work 43 hrs per week, but my check only shows payment based on 40 hrs. Can an employer legally do this sort of thing?

Where? Union or contract?

Is your lunch and break part of that 43 hours?

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Originally Posted by JudyKayTee

... Union or contract?

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I believe OP answered that question before you asked it: "no contract signed, just a verbal agreement."

Unless the verbal agreement had some sort of tenure provision ("I won't lay you off without good cause" or "if I have to lay you off or reduce your hours, I will give you a severance package", I don't believe OP has much of a case. The employer could just let OP go, and then, if he or she chose, re-hire him/her at the reduced hours per week and reduced wage rate.

Quote:

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Originally Posted by AK lawyer

I believe OP answered that question before you asked it: "no contract signed, just a verbal agreement."

Unless the verbal agreement had some sort of tenure provision ("I won't lay you off without good cause" or "if I have to lay you off or reduce your hours, I will give you a severance package", I don't believe OP has much of a case. The employer could just let OP go, and then, if he or she chose, re-hire him/her at the reduced hours per week and reduced wage rate.

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- And so he did.